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Re: Which Marxism? (fwd)

by elson

06 June 1999 16:25 UTC




> Marx uses MOP in two ways. One is as a societal model. The other is as a
> technical mode. For example, chattel slavery in the US south, according to
> Marx, was capitalist production, and was therefore a component of the
> social mode of production that underpinned the world capitalist market. As
> a technical mode of production, however, chattel slavery differed from the
> wage-labor - capital relation. Technical modes are modes of exploitation
> and labor processes abstracted from the larger totality which stamps
> societal components with their overall character. IW's method does not
> really deviate from Marx's method in this regard, just the terminology is
> different. What Marx and Engels predict (largely proven valid by the
> passage of time) is that through a process of globalization capitalism
> would become established as the only social mode of production, subsuming
> under itself several modes of exploitation, but eventually replacing these
> with the wage-labor - capital relation.

This more or less jibes with my reading of Marx.  I'd point out, however,
that wage-labor is still a minority of forms of production even within core
areas.  So, Marx was off on the point of England showing the future to the
rest of the world.



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