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Re: new immanence
by Yurek Gierus
16 February 2003 19:17 UTC
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-------Original Message-------
 
Date: 16 luty 2003 15:42:17
Subject: Re: new immanence
 
In a message dated 2/15/2003 11:54:16 PM Eastern Standard Time, j.gierus@chello.pl writes

> Weekend protests seem to confirm the role of what Antonio Negri called “multitude” acting on what he called “new plane
> of immanence”

What is the difference between 'the multitude' and 'the working class'? And what is the difference between 'a new plane of immanence' and 'socialist consciousness'? Seriously--I'm curious about how language changes and why

1. The difference between "multitude" and "working class". Was it just the working class who protested? I don't think so.

2. "Immanence" in Hardt and Negri is an opposite to "transcendence". What he means is a purely (continental) European concept of transformation of conscience. Transcendent is mediated, placed outside the individual, acting on him from above. Immanent is unmediated, immediate, direct. In Tocqueville American grass root "democracy" in these terms can be defined as a state of immanence, whereas European "aristocracy" (in Old Greek meaning of the word) can be defined as a state of transcendence.
 
Yurek Gierus
 
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