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Re: capitalism?
by g kohler
17 March 2002 15:30 UTC
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I enjoyed reading the post by Alan Spector and one line in particular
caught my attention, namely:
"But there are processes distinctive to the
 situation in the world today, as opposed to 800 years ago, aren't
there?"

As a response - in a reflective mode, neither defending or attacking
anything in particular, I like to suggest a variation on that question -
namely,
"But there are processes distinctive to the
 situation in the world today, as opposed to 150 years ago, aren't
there?"

What I mean is that a sociologist-as-a-baby looking at the world for the
first time and describing the present world would describe it
differently from the way Marx and Engels did at their time. I am
referring, in particular, to the paragraph in CM where they say that in
the old days there were many gradations of rank in society, but that in
their own time this had reduced itself to a dichotomy. I think that was
a fair description of English, French or German society around the
middle of the 19th century. However, you cannot say that our
contemporary world society is equally dichotomous. The US government is
trying to artificially a create a global dichotomy, but in fact there
are "many gradations of rank" in contemporary world society, rather than
a dichotomy.

Gert





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