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Hamlet
by B. Y.
08 February 2002 08:42 UTC
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Everyone knows something about Hamlet, the most famous person of the literature.

I want to raise a question about the world system description made by Shakespeare in the play.

 

Play tells a state whose old king was assassinated by his brother, who is married with the queen just after two months from the funeral.

 

Shakespeare makes references to his own country in this play in the name of Denmark.

First, Shakespeare draws a very sharp line between two kings character: old one is described as a powerful, warrior, hard-looking man, while the other is fearful, diplomat, immoral, absent from leadership ability vs.

 

Most of the commentators agree that Shakespeare defends kingship, old regime. So in Hamlet, he tell us the transition from ancient regime to capitalism and describes two system under the characters of the two kings, and also in parallel with the change of state.

 

Everything can be said ok up to now. But it is known that in the 16th century, core states were defined with the power of their monarchy. And Britain was not a core state.

So if Shakespeare’s opposition or critics was pointed to the capitalism is not clear at this point. One can easily say that Shakespeare’s opposition was an internal one, it was a dissent about the governance of the state which was in the process of getting a role between the core states of the Europe. This was the critic of the capitalist policies followed.

 

So monarchic character of the core states in the 16th century becomes important to decide about it. Immanuel Wallerstein’s thesis support this but on the other hand I am aware of there is a large amount of critics on this founder thesis of Wallerstein which shows Poland as a Counter example. (Also in the play, Shakespeare makes a reference to Poland saying old king has a colonialist relation with Poland, and which fails with the new king as the all other things and values.)

 

I know this is a multilateral issue; I mean same debate can turn over if we talk about the values/culture etc. So most basically I want to ask about whether the monarchic state structure is required to become a core state in the 16th century or not.

 

Thanks.

 





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