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question re epistemic violence

by g kohler

06 January 2000 02:23 UTC


The recent post from India, forwarded by Mine, mentions "epistemic
violence". Is that the same as "cultural violence" (a term used, e.g., by
Galtung and Senghaas)? As I understand "cultural violence", it refers to the
violent effects in the cultural domain -- e.g., the culture of a dominant
group may be repressing (and may lead to physical violence against) an
underdog group with a different culture. Portraying blond women in
advertising may be cultural violence against non-blond women, etc. -- Or,
does "epistemic violence" mean something else?
Gert Kohler

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