Re: Can capitalism be reformed?

You misunderstand the meaning of my message, but I suspect most readers on
WSN understand it.
I did not say that "Keynesianism"   "CAUSED" the problems of the past
century.

I said that IMPERIALISM caused this misery --- capitalism in the stage where
it must seek investments in other countries to maintain its rate of profit
by finding cheaper labor and markets. If you do not understand the
connection between powerful nations' NEED for profits and the way that they
implement political and military policies to enforce their ability to
exploit workers in other countries,  then you are probably in the minority
on this list, and not me. Those policies ARE the cause of the human
catastrophes that I barely began to outline in the last post.

I also said that Keynesianism was a strategy of capitalism, that it might
alleviate, temporarily in some specific localities, some of the acute
problems of capitalism. But it cannot "SOLVE" capitalism's problems. So, NO,
Keynesianism is not the "CAUSE" of the problems, but the Kenysianists have
repeately shown their basic loyalty to the murderous processes of
imperialism which I have already outlined several times.  Or do you really
think that U.S. capitalism's processes really have nothing to do with
"military coups in South America"?

Alan Spector
============================================

----- Original Message -----
From: "Paul Riesz" <priesz@itn.cl>
Cc: <spectors@netnitco.net>; "Haritatos Petros" <haritatos@athenian.net>;
"Kohler Gernot" <gkohler@accglobal.net>; "Siegmund" <siegmund@thegrid.net>;
"WSN" <wsn@csf.colorado.edu>; <cj@cyberjournal.org>; "Fair Trade"
<fair-trade@riseup.net>; <stephen.hay@theseus.fr>
Sent: Sunday, April 22, 2001 9:05 PM
Subject: Re: Can capitalism be reformed?


> To Alan Spector:
> Trying to prove that Keynesianism cannot offer a valid alternative to
> the present
> neoliberal model of capitalism,  you tell us about every human disaster
> and misery,
> that has happened all over the world during the last century.
> You seem to assume, that because some of them occurred at the same time,
> when
> Keynesian policies were practiced in many industrialized countries, it
> must be
> Keynesianism that caused them, thus contradicting the basic rules of
> logical
> reasoning.
> In order to prove your point, you would have to show us, what
> stimulating the
> economy during recessions has to do with the conflict between Hindus and
> Moslems
> in India or with military coups in South America.
>
> Whether or not capitalism itself caused such disasters or simply was
> unable to prevent them, would have to be decided in a different
> discussion; unfortunately I lack the qualification needed for such a
> difficult subject.
> Regards                 Paul Riesz
>
>