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Re: Where have all the workers gone?
by Paul Broome
11 December 2000 16:42 UTC
Title: Re: Where have all the workers
gone?
At 09:00 -0600 11/12/00, Alan Spector wrote:
Paul,
Ever? 1805? 1850? 1619?
This is an enormous overstatement!
Alan, OK, I'm guilty of generalising here - I have a limited
amount of time to participate in these lists (as I am sure most have)
and the detail and specifities suffer due to thinking and typing on
the fly - though that isn't really an excuse I know. I also prefer to
spend the majority of my time on practical projects rather than
theorising - more an activist than an academic at the end of the day I
suppose.
There has been significant
deindustrialization in the UK, North America, etc. There has also been
significant industrialization in the so-called Third World. One can
find factories and mines in rural areas of Africa where one could only
find peasants fifty years ago. Mexico is another example of this.
Furthermore, many of the "non-industrial" jobs are not that
different from industrial jobs 50 years ago. Cleaner conditions,
maybe, but the same routinized, alienated, basically physical labor.
Secretaries in typing pools, fast food workers, temporary
janitorial services, etc. And then, there's prison labor, (in the
U.S.).
I agree with you that certainly, there are cases of
industrialisation in the South that potentially give rise to new
proletariats , but I'm still not convinced this automatically leads to
a 'proletariat' in each and every case. I would also contest that many
modern jobs are somewhat different to fifty years ago. I mentioned the
UK car workers as I undertook some research at the Rover plant, Cowley
in Oxford during 1995-6. Here, I was researching the impact of
Japanese-style working practices in UK car industry and used the Rover
Company as my case study. I spoke with workers that had worked at the
car plant for over forty years in some cases. They told me how their
jobs had become qualitatively improved and more diversified. On the
other hand, they were still working on a production line and there was
still some repetitiveness to some degree or other. When it came to
poiticisation of the work force, the majority thought the workforce
were less politically motivated than twenty or forty years ago. They
also thought that they were 'better off' financially and materially
and that this affected the de-politicisation of the workforce. They
even considered themselves better skilled than their forebears, or in
some cases, to what they were twenty years ago - Rover has it's own
'university' programme. This of course is only one plant in one
country. It is this 'de-ploiticisation' or 'sanitising' that I am
interested in and how it impinges on the 'the publics' attitude
towards globalisation and public disobedience.
As to rebellion? Is the UK more, or less,
industrialized than Russia was in 1917? NO, I don't believe that
"revolution is imminent". And I think it is important
to oppose utopian or mechanistic theories which predict sponntaneous
uprisings that will demolish capitalism for all time based on an
idealized version of some "super-proletarian" who
"automatically" develops the understanding to create a new,
egalitarian world. Maerx never said that everyone would either be an
employed factory worker or an owner, by the way.
Exactly - I'm glad we appear to agree here.
But we will need a broader
framework than just considering the UK (or USA or Western
Europe) during the relatively short period of 1945-2000.
Hopefully others on this network will provide more
historical political-economic
I'm trying to look past the traditional power models and look at
what lies behind them. For example, why is it only a very small
percentage of any countries population take part in public
disobedience? As you correctly (in my opinion) point out, it is
unlikely there will be a spontaneous uprising and that capitalism -
even globalisation - will be demolished. To put it another way, why
'can't' there be a revolution in say, the UK, at this present time?
I'm just trying to find out why this might be. If we look at the
considerable inequalities in the world, and especially between North
and South, then I'd like to know and understand why more of the public
in the US and Europe (for example) don't join in with mobilisations
against globalisation. We could even say similar for protests in the
South - the number of people protesting against the effects of
globalisation in Thailand for example, is tiny in comparison to the
country's overall population - even though those protests have been
very successful.
Just to be clear, I'm not sceptical of union movements or
activist mobilisations - there is actually much to feel encouraged
about. But I'm not a positivist in these matters and there remains
along way to go before those striving for equality can begin to feel
satisfied. Let us just hope that movements continue to grow and more
of the 'public' get involved, for it is their involvement that is
going to be needed.
Paul.
information on this topic.
Alan Spector
===============================================
> At 21:23 -0600 10/12/00, Alan
Spector wrote:
> >----- Original Message -----
> >From: "Paul Broome" <p.broome@rhbnc.ac.uk>
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